Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
15.06.2025 03:18
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
There's no rule.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
How do you weigh in on the Vance-couch conversation?
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Is anyone else losing complete respect for the US at this point?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.